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- Herausgeber: John Wiley & Sons
- Kategorie: Bildung
- Sprache: Englisch
1,001 SAT practice questions--at your fingertips Setting your sights on college? Ready to take the SAT? Get a head start on a high score with 1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies. Inside, you'll find 1,001 practice questions on everything you'll encounter on the SAT. All of the question types and formats are here, so you can study, practice, and increase your chances of scoring higher on the big day. Whether you're cramming on the go, pulling an all-nighter, or making useful time of study hall, 1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies gives you the practice you need to prepare for that all-important exam day. So roll up your sleeves, put your nose to the grindstone, and get the confidence to perform your very best. * Includes free, one-year access to practice questions online * Offers 1,001 SAT practice questions--from easy to hard * Tracks your progress, so you can see where you need more help and create your own question sets * Provides detailed, step-by-step answers and explanations for every question Approach the SAT with confidence. Everything you need to succeed is a page away.
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1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies®
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Published simultaneously in Canada
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Library of Congress Control Number: 2016935432
ISBN 978-1-119-21584-4 (pbk); ISBN 978-1-119-21563-9 (ebk); ISBN 978-1-119-21566-0 (ebk)
1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies®
To view this book's Cheat Sheet, simply go to www.dummies.com and search for “SAT” in the Search box.
Table of Contents
Cover
Introduction
What You’ll Find
How This Book Is Organized
Beyond the Book
Where to Go for Additional Help
Part 1: The Questions
Chapter 1: Reading Comprehension
The Problems You’ll Work On
What to Watch Out For
Passage A
Passage B
Passage C
Passage D
Passage E
Passage F
Passage G
Passage H
Passage I
Passage J
Passage K
Passage L
Chapter 2: English/Writing
The Problems You’ll Work On
What to Watch Out For
Passage 1
Passage 2
Passage 3
Passage 4
Passage 5
Passage 6
Passage 7
Passage 8
Passage 9
Passage 10
Passage 11
Passage 12
Passage 13
Passage 14
Passage 15
Passage 16
Chapter 3: Math: No-Calculator Section
The Problems You’ll Work On
What to Watch Out For
Multiple Choice
Grid-In
Chapter 4: Math: Calculator Section
The Problems You’ll Work On
What to Watch Out For
Multiple Choice
Grid-In
Chapter 5: Essays
The Problems You’ll Work On
What to Watch Out For
Essay Prompts
Part 2: The Answers
Chapter 6: The Answers
Chapter 1
Chapter 2
Chapter 3
Chapter 4
Chapter 5
About the Author
Connect with Dummies
End User License Agreement
Guide
Cover
Table of Contents
Begin Reading
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Introduction
Welcome to 1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies. Don’t take the dummies thing literally — you’re obviously smart and capable. You’re getting through high school and about ready to go to college. You’ll graduate to join the elite group of approximately 30 percent of U.S. citizens who hold bachelor’s degrees, and some of you will even go on to graduate or doctorate school.
Between you and your goal is the SAT: a test designed to challenge your ability to remember everything you’ve learned how to do since freshman year. To clear this hurdle, you need some practice and pointers on how best to answer the questions. This book provides that and more: It goes beyond providing relevant practice questions by showing simple and effective ways to solve challenging SAT problems.
What You’ll Find
The SAT practice problems in this book are divided into five chapters: two verbal, two math, and one writing. Questions are adjusted and repeated to give you practice and mastery. If you struggle with one question, you can find a group of similar questions to practice and hone your skills. This book serves as an effective standalone refresher of SAT basics or as an excellent companion to the latest edition of SAT For Dummies (Wiley). Either way, this book helps you identify subject areas you need to work on so you can practice them until you’re a pro and thus prepare for test day.
If you get a problem wrong, don’t just read the answer explanation and move on. Instead, come back to the problem and solve it again, this time avoiding the mistake you made the first time. This is how you improve your skills and figure out how to solve the problems correctly and easily.
Whatever you do, stay positive. The challenging problems in this book aren’t meant to discourage you; they’re meant to show you how to solve and master them.
How This Book Is Organized
The first half of this book gives you questions covering reading and English, math, and essay writing. All the answers and explanations are in the second half of the book.
The reading and verbal questions in this book cover the following topics:
Reading comprehension:
The SAT gives you five reading passages or pairs of passages along with ten or eleven questions based on each. The questions challenge your ability to discern the purpose of the passage and the significance of the details.
English/Writing:
The SAT also gives you four writing passages, each with eleven questions, that give you the opportunity to correct for grammar, rewrite a phrase for style and clarity, or add or move a sentence for logic and flow. These questions are designed to see how well you write clearly and effectively.
True to the actual exam, about a third of the math questions in this book should be worked without a calculator, and the rest, with a calculator. Also, about a fourth of these questions aren’t multiple-choice: Instead, you fill in the answer. These questions cover the following topics:
Arithmetic:
These questions are based on core arithmetic concepts, including prime numbers, absolute values, decimals, fractions, and ratios. Don’t be fooled by their simple nature: These questions can be as challenging as any that you find on the SAT.
Geometry:
Geometry covers basic shapes, such as triangles, circles, and squares. These questions also go into basic 3D solids, including cylinders, boxes, prisms, spheres, and cones.
Algebra:
These questions are extensions of arithmetic, going into exponents, square roots, and numeric sequences. They explore variations of solving for
x
and linear equations having
x
and
y.
Word problems:
No set of word problems is complete without the two trains coming from Chattanooga. These questions cover those types of problems along with averages, probability, and setting up equations from a story.
Graphs and data interpretation:
The SAT problems feature variations of challenging tables and graphs; you’re given a graph or two along with a few questions based on those graphs.
You have the option of writing a single, 50-minute essay on the SAT, and these pages provide plenty of practice. For your essay, the SAT gives you an opinion piece or call to action in the form of a reading passage. Your task is to demonstrate that you comprehend the passage by analyzing the way that the author approaches the topic. The SAT does not ask for your opinion, so be sure to stay objective.
Beyond the Book
Your purchase of this book gives you so much more than a thousand (and one) problems to work on to improve your skills with the SAT. It also comes with a free, one-year subscription to hundreds of practice questions online. Not only can you access this digital content anytime you want, on whichever device is available to you, but you can also track your progress and view personalized reports that show you which concepts you need to study the most.
What you’ll find online
The online practice that comes free with this book offers you the same questions and answers that are available here. Of course, the real beauty of the online problems is your ability to customize your practice. In other words, you get to choose the types of problems and the number of problems you want to tackle. The online program tracks how many questions you answer correctly versus incorrectly so you can get an immediate sense of which topics need more of your attention.
This product also comes with an online Cheat Sheet that helps you increase your odds of performing well on the SAT. To get the Cheat Sheet, go to www.dummies.com and type this book's title in the Search box. (No access code required. You can benefit from this info before you even register.)
How to register
To gain access to practice online, all you have to do is register. Just follow these simple steps:
Find your PIN access code:
Print-book users:
If you purchased a print copy of this book, turn to the inside front cover of the book to find your access code.
E-book users:
If you purchased this book as an e-book, you can get your access code by registering your e-book at
www.dummies.com/go/getaccess
. Go to this website, find your book and click it, and answer the security questions to verify your purchase. You’ll receive an email with your access code.
Go to
Dummies.com
and click
Activate Now.
Find your product (
1,001 SAT Practice Questions For Dummies
) and then follow the on-screen prompts to activate your PIN.
Now you’re ready to go! You can come back to the program as often as you want — simply log in with the username and password you created during your initial login. No need to enter the access code a second time.
For Technical Support, please visit http://wiley.custhelp.com or call Wiley at: 1-800-762-2974 (U.S.) or +1-317-572-3994 (international).
Where to Go for Additional Help
The solutions to the practice problems in this book are meant to walk you through how to get the right answers; they’re not meant to teach the material. If certain concepts are unfamiliar to you, you can find help at www.dummies.com. Just type “SAT” into the search box to turn up a wealth of SAT-related information.
If you need more detailed instruction, check out SAT For Dummies, 9th Edition, written by Gerri Woods and yours truly.
Part 1
The Questions
IN THIS PART …
Become familiar with the ways the SAT asks you to comprehend reading passages. Answer questions about purpose, main ideas, supporting information, details, vocabulary, and more.
Correct writing mistakes in the English/Writing section. Fix grammar and punctuation, add clarity, improve style and flow, and demonstrate logic in writing.
Check your understanding of math concepts and calculations on the No-Calculator and Calculator sections of the SAT. Work on hundreds of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, data-interpretation, and word problems so you can recognize common traps and tricks.
Practice writing essays that analyze someone else’s argument.
Chapter 1
Reading Comprehension
Reading comprehension questions on the SAT are grouped by passage, where a single passage has ten or eleven questions on it. The passage appears once, and the questions follow sequentially.
All Reading Comprehension questions are based directly on what’s in the passage. You don’t need to know anything about the subject outside the passage. If you’re familiar with the topic, you may easily comprehend the passage, but be careful not to mix your own knowledge of the topic with what’s in the passage.
The Problems You’ll Work On
When working through the questions in this chapter, be prepared to
Choose one answer from a multiple-choice selection.
Select a sentence from the passage to support a previous answer.
Answer questions based on biological and physical science topics, including physics, chemistry, and astronomy.
Understand the impact of social science topics, including history, psychology, and business.
Get the gist of humanities topics, including art, music, philosophy, drama, and literature.
What to Watch Out For
Trap answers include the following:
Facts that aren’t mentioned in the passage
Things that are true but don’t answer the question
Terms that twist the facts around, such as
never
for
always
Passage A
Questions 1–10 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Introverts For Dummies, by Joan Pastor, PhD (Wiley).
1. According to the passage, “supergifted” kids most likely do not
(A) identify as introverts
(B) have above-average IQs
(C) have advanced social skills
(D) have learning disabilities
2. Pastor claims that which of the following is the reason gifted kids struggle in school?
I. They are shy as introverts.
II. They already know the material.
III. They ignore classroom assignments.
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
3. Pastor uses the phrase “these children’s remarkable talents” (line 10) to make the point that
(A) the children are more advanced than their peers
(B) the children have a lot to learn
(C) the children should learn a trade
(D) the children could excel as performers
4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 4–5 (“You’d think … they don’t.”)
(B) Lines 17–18 (“Some schools … fall far short.”)
(C) Lines 36–37 (“her school … grade.”)
(D) Lines 46–47 (“If your child … some areas,”)
5. The main theme that Pastor describes in the passage is that gifted, introverted children
(A) could excel in the academic setting provided by almost any school
(B) should avoid online distractions from true academic discourse
(C) could benefit from advancing an extra grade to be with peers at their intellectual level
(D) could perform extremely well in the right academic setting
6. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 4–5 (“You’d think … they don’t.”)
(B) Lines 17–18 (“Some schools … fall far short.”)
(C) Lines 20–22 (“Some communities … children.”)
(D) Lines 36–37 (“her school … grade.”)
7. As used in line 38, “pack” most nearly means
(A) a group of dogs
(B) a group of kids
(C) prepare for a trip
(D) worn on one’s back
8. The second paragraph (lines 4–11) is primarily concerned with
(A) drawing a contrast between intellectual ability and academic performance
(B) showing a parallel between suitable surroundings and personal growth
(C) illustrating the success of exploring options outside the child’s academic setting
(D) suggesting a possible correlation between high IQ and learning disability
9. Pastor suggests that parents of gifted children should
I. explore options outside the classroom
II. explore schools outside the district
III. explore resources outside the school
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
10. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 4–5 (“You’d think … they don’t.”)
(B) Lines 12–13 (“That’s why … for them.”)
(C) Lines 17–18 (“Some schools … fall far short.”)
(D) Lines 20–22 (“Some communities … children.”)
Passage B
Questions 11–20 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from U.S. History For Dummies, 3rd Edition, by Steve Wiegand (Wiley).
11. What is the purpose of the phrase “America is all puddings and pies!” (lines 11–12)?
(A) To demonstrate that immigrants looked forward to eating sweets
(B) To reflect the hope and excitement felt by the immigrants
(C) To show the lifestyle that the immigrants looked forward to
(D) To exemplify the dietary habits of New Yorkers
12. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 8–10 (“Most of them … or both.”)
(B) Lines 10–11 (“Many times … unrealistically high.”)
(C) Lines 40–42 (“In those areas … existed.”)
(D) Lines 58–59 (“Public transit … in place.”)
13. What is the purpose of the phrase “there were … in Ireland” (lines 30–31)?
(A) To exemplify the presence of immigrants
(B) To show the dwindling population in certain other countries, including Ireland
(C) To allude to the disproportionate number of Irish in New York
(D) To show the dwindling numbers of other Americans
14. Which choice does the answer to the preceding question exemplify?
(A) Lines 8–10 (“Most of them … or both.”)
(B) Lines 19–23 (“The presence … culture.”)
(C) Lines 28–30 (“By the turn …foreign-born,”)
(D) Lines 58–59 (“Public transit … in place.”)
15. The purpose of the passage is to describe
(A) the countries most immigrants came from
(B) the effects of immigration on cities such as Chicago and New York
(C) Baltimore’s billion polecats
(D) the flow of immigrants and the evolution of big American cities
16. In this passage, Wiegand makes use of
(A) literary narrative
(B) metaphor
(C) emotion
(D) persuasion
17. What does Wiegand suggest was the path of many immigrants?
(A) From danger and poverty to comfort and security
(B) From danger and poverty to overcrowding and filth
(C) From comfort and security to overcrowding and filth
(D) From overcrowding and filth to comfort and security
18. According to the passage, which of the following prompted Congress to tighten immigration policies?
(A) The millions of refugees following World War I
(B) The 25 million immigrants between 1866 and 1915
(C) The 80 percent of the immigrant wave that settled in Northern cities
(D) The inner-city housing problems
19. What is the purpose of the last paragraph?
(A) It describes the squalid conditions in the cities.
(B) It suggests that circumstances were starting to improve.
(C) It showcases the farmers who traveled to the city.
(D) It describes a timeline of events.
20. If the numbers stated in the passage are true, which of the following had a 15 percent foreign-born population?
(A) New York City
(B) Chicago
(C) Northern cities
(D) America
Passage C
Questions 21–28 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Clinical Anatomy For Dummies, by David Terfera, PhD, and Shereen Jegtvig, DC, MS (Wiley).
21. According to the passage, the cauda equine is so named because it resembles
(A) a tingling leg
(B) a cone
(C) a horse’s tail
(D) a cell body
22. A person experiencing pain in the arm and forearm without an actual cause in that area is most likely suffering from
I. arthritic osteophytes
II. disc herniations
III. innervated vertebral column
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
23. The purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe the placement of the spinal nerves
(B) explore the issues that arise from maladies such as herniated discs
(C) discuss the naming conventions of certain features
(D) illustrate the roles of certain spinal nerves
24. The purpose of the last paragraph is to
(A) support the theory that motor weakness arises from issues with the spine
(B) explore the tapering of the spinal cord into the cauda equina
(C) explain the causes of pain and tingling in the extremities
(D) describe the causes and symptoms of impinged spinal nerve roots
25. According to the passage, each spinal nerve is formed by
I. posterior nerve roots
II. anterior nerve roots
III. medial branch roots
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
26. The use of the word “actually” (line 25) suggests that
(A) most textbooks describe the spinal cord ending at the 1st lumbar vertebra
(B) there is a common misconception about the placement of the spinal cord
(C) one would expect the spinal cord to extend through all the vertebrae
(D) the nerve roots that emerge past the 2nd lumbar vertebra are typically considered part of the spinal cord
27. Past the point where the nerve roots merge, each spinal nerve divides into
(A) the posterior and anterior nerve roots
(B) the posterior and anterior rami
(C) the recurrent meningeal branch
(D) the medial branches of the posterior rami
28. Sensory motor fibers are contained within
I. posterior nerve roots
II. anterior nerve roots
III. the anterior ramus
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
29. In context, the word “mixed” (line 19) means
(A) diverse
(B) combined
(C) assorted
(D) hybrid
30. How are the rami specifically like the spinal nerves?
(A) Both are primarily motor fibers.
(B) Both are spinal nerves.
(C) Both contain a combination of sensory fibers and motor fibers.
(D) Both innervate the trunk and extremities.
Passage D
Questions 31–40 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Global Issues: An Introduction, 5th Edition, by Kristen A. Hite and John L. Seitz (Wiley-Blackwell).
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
31. According to the passage, what was a direct result of development gains?
(A) An explosion of world population
(B) Major improvements in health conditions
(C) Exponential growth of world population
(D) The diminishing of natural resources
32. Which of the following was a specific result of the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 2–3 (“but what is … of growth”)
(B) Lines 27–28 (“dramatically … disease”)
(C) Lines 34–36 (“the total number … decline”)
(D) Lines 58–60 (“if you … do this”)
33. According to the passage,
(A) population growth rates are starting to stabilize in many places
(B) population growth rates are out of control in most places
(C) population health has significantly deteriorated in many places
(D) population resources have increased in many places
34. What is implied by the phrase “until … reached” (line 46)?
(A) Humans will cover the entire earth.
(B) Humans will run out of natural resources.
(C) Humans will lose the capacity to reproduce.
(D) Humans will run out of room.
35. According to Table 1.1, what was the approximate world population in 1945?
(A) Between 1 billion and 2 billion
(B) Between 2 billion and 3 billion
(C) Between 3 billion and 4 billion
(D) Over 4 billion
36. As the estimated world population increases, the number of years estimated to add 1 billion people
(A) decreases sharply
(B) decreases and then increases slightly
(C) increases sharply
(D) increases and then decreases slightly
37. What other factor do the authors attribute to the rapid population growth besides exponential growth?
(A) Enhancements in living conditions
(B) Improvements in health conditions
(C) Reduction of dangerous animals
(D) Mitigation of harmful weather conditions
38. What is the message of the French riddle in the last paragraph?
(A) By the time we realize population overgrowth is an issue, it will be too late.
(B) The human population will cover the earth in the same way that the lily covers the pond.
(C) The human population will cover half of the available space before we realize that it is an issue.
(D) If continued, the 29th line of Table 1.1 will show that the earth has reached half of its capacity for supporting the population.
39. Which choice supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 2–3 (“but what is … of growth”)
(B) Lines 23–24 (“How can … growth?”)
(C) Lines 51–52 (“The French … children”)
(D) Lines 58–60 (“if you … do this”)
40. The French riddle makes use of
(A) imagery
(B) simile
(C) folklore
(D) analogy
Passage E
Questions 41–50 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Biology For Dummies, 2nd Edition, by Rene Fester Kratz, PhD, and Donna Rae Siegfried (Wiley).
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
FIGURE 1-1
41. According to the passage, the functioning of stomates is most like the functioning of
(A) the nuclei of cells
(B) the pores of skin
(C) hair follicles
(D) digestive enzymes
42. A result of the stomates being open too long is that
(A) the plant can lose too much water
(B) the plan can lose too much carbon dioxide
(C) the plant can take in extra oxygen
(D) the plant can take in too much sunlight
43. The authors of the passage make use of
(A) parables
(B) emotions
(C) analogies
(D) hyperbole
44. What is the purpose of the phrase “When the Sun … occurring” (lines 21–22)?
(A) To specify the source of light
(B) To create a visual outdoor image
(C) To create a silly tone
(D) To describe a process by starting with the catalyst
45. According to the passage, what is the primary purpose of the guard cells?
(A) To prevent the plant from losing too much water
(B) To protect the plant from intruders
(C) To take in carbon dioxide during photosynthesis
(D) To reflect certain rays from the Sun that may be harmful
46. Which sentence provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 2–3 (“It lets … losing water.”)
(B) Lines 4–7 (“Many plants … paint.”)
(C) Lines 15–17 (“However, if … water.”)
(D) Lines 17–19 (“To prevent … surrounding it.”)
47. A suitable title for this passage would be
(A) Plant Leaves and CO2 Processing
(B) The Stomates and Guard Cells of the Plant Cuticle
(C) Plant Control of Water Loss
(D) Desert-Climate Plants
48. Which sentence provides the best example of the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 4–7 (“Many plants … paint.”)
(B) Lines 21–24 (“When the Sun … stomates.”)
(C) Lines 28–30 (“Some plants … leaves.”)
(D) Lines 31–34 (“Then, during … night.”)
49. What is the purpose of the last paragraph?
(A) To provide an example of a plant’s use of stomates to conserve water
(B) To provide an example of plants that perform photosynthesis at an unusual time
(C) To provide an example of plants that struggle to survive
(D) To provide an example of plants that use less wax on their cuticles
50. According to the information presented in the passage, the xylem is contained within the
(A) cuticle
(B) epidermis
(C) mesophyll
(D) stomates
Passage F
Questions 51–60 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from World Literature in Theory, by David Damrosch, Editor (Wiley-Blackwell).
51. In the context in which it appears, “vertiginous” (line 4) most nearly means
(A) conceivable
(B) dizzying
(C) enlightening
(D) edifying
52. Which of the following statements are given as examples of cross-cultural influence in literature?
I. Distributing literary works from London to Kenya
II. A French citizen writing in Chinese
III. Blending magical realism with Tibetan folklore
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
53. According to the passage, how has the potential reach of literature changed?
(A) It may be translated into over 50 languages.
(B) It may allow authors to continue to write in their native languages.
(C) It may be discovered by readers from all over the world.
(D) It may bring the authors the Nobel Prize recognition that they deserve.
54. Which choice best describes the phenomenon described in the preceding question?
(A) Lines 1–5 (“The cultural … countries.”)
(B) Lines 9–14 (“At the same time … attention.”)
(C) Lines 25–28 (“Increasingly … character.”)
(D) Lines 31–38 (“Cultural … abroad.”)
55. What is the significance of two of the three authors mentioned in the passage having won the Nobel Prize?
(A) It exemplifies the significance of the new readers that authors may now reach.
(B) It exemplifies the cultural diversity embraced by the Nobel Committee.
(C) It exemplifies the quality of work that readers may not otherwise access.
(D) It exemplifies the opportunities for recognition that these authors may not have otherwise had.
56. According to the passage, Orhan Pamuk is from
(A) China
(B) Vietnam
(C) Turkey
(D) France
57. What is the purpose of the text “What are we … power” (lines 1–9)?
(A) It describes an evolution that has a result.
(B) It describes a problem that needs a solution.
(C) It describes a pattern that has emerged.
(D) It describes the result of a historical event.
58. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(A) Writers from almost anywhere have better opportunities to win the Nobel Prize.
(B) Writers from almost anywhere can now achieve global recognition.
(C) The cultural and political landscape has been significantly realigned over the past two decades.
(D) An author can move to another country and continue to write in his native language.
59. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 1–5 (“The cultural … countries.”)
(B) Lines 9–14 (“At the same time … attention.”)
(C) Lines 18–20 (“an increasingly … fame”)
(D) Lines 31–38 (“Cultural … abroad.”)
60. What is the significance of the phrase “in a very real … abroad” (lines 36–38)?
(A) It suggests that Dawa was ahead of his time.
(B) It reminds us of the importance of international authors.
(C) It implies that Dawa should also have received the Nobel Prize.
(D) It indicates that Dawa was well-versed in many languages.
Passage G
Questions 61–70 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from GRE For Dummies, 8th Edition, by Ron Woldoff and Joe Kraynak (Wiley).
61. According to the passage, what is the benefit of moisture in the soil?
(A) It facilitates the extinguishing of the fire.
(B) It mitigates fire damage to the soil by increasing the soil’s heat capacity.
(C) It bolsters ambient fire heat by releasing vapor and steam.
(D) It transfers clay soil properties to sandy soil conditions.
62. Which sentence best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 20–21 (“A water-repellent … campfire.”)
(B) Lines 35–37 (“At this temperature … created.”)
(C) Lines 37–39 (“For areas … properties.”)
(D) Lines 58–60 (“These data … the park.”)
63. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) soil temperature affects soil fertility
(B) only certain woods allow for high-quality campfires
(C) soils must be able to absorb water to sustain organic matter
(D) steps can be taken to minimize soil damage from campfires
64. According to the passage, long-lasting campfires are more likely than short-lived ones to
(A) create water repellency-inducing conditions
(B) maintain soil fertility
(C) occur with softwood fuels
(D) produce higher soil temperatures
65. The authors would be most likely to agree with which of the following?
(A) Campfires should be banned as destructive to campground soil.
(B) Organic matter decreases soil erosion.
(C) Clay-loam soil is preferable to sandy soil for campsites.
(D) Campfires will not burn in areas with moist soil.
66. Which sentence best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 8–11 (“The loss … erosion.”)
(B) Lines 20–21 (“A water-repellent … campfire.”)
(C) Lines 35–37 (“At this temperature … created.”)
(D) Lines 58–60 (“These data … the park.”)
67. According to the passage, elm and mesquite are probably
(A) fast-burning softwoods
(B) fast-burning hardwoods
(C) slow-burning softwoods
(D) slow-burning hardwoods
68. The passage suggests that the best way to reduce soil damage from fire is to
I. use soft fuel
II. vary the location of the fires
III. have the fires on moist soils
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II, and III
69. What is the purpose of mentioning “permanent concrete fireplaces” (lines 50–51)?
(A) The authors allude to an ideal solution.
(B) The authors caution against a certain decision.
(C) The authors describe a dangerous situation.
(D) The authors recommend an alternative course of action.
70. What approach does the passage take?
(A) It warns of a dangerous outcome.
(B) It advocates the restriction of a harmful activity.
(C) It offers guidance and suggestions.
(D) It suggests that an overhaul be effected.
Passage H
Questions 71–80 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Pride and Prejudice, by Jane Austen (public domain).
71. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) introduce Mr. and Mrs. Bennet and the dynamic that they share
(B) suggest that the Bennet daughters meet Mr. Bingley
(C) make the case that Mr. Bingley must be in need of a wife
(D) make the case that Mr. Bennet visit Mr. Bingley
72. What is Mrs. Bennet’s primary purpose?
(A) To bring friendliness and welcoming throughout the neighborhood
(B) To help her daughters overcome any shortcomings
(C) To see her daughters married to wealthy men
(D) To convince her husband that their daughters are ready for marriage
73. Which statement best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 6–9 (“this truth … daughters.”)
(B) Lines 42–44 (“But it is … one of them,”)
(C) Lines 90–92 (“But I hope … neighbourhood.”)
(D) Lines 104–105 (“The business … married;”)
74. What is the purpose of the opening statement “It is … a wife” (lines 1–3) in the first two paragraphs?
(A) To serve as a reminder of an undeniable truth
(B) To describe an inescapable fate
(C) To introduce a conviction and irony
(D) To explain insatiable needs
75. Based on the passage, what is Mrs. Bennet most likely to engage in the most?
(A) Charity
(B) Housework
(C) Nurturing and caring
(D) Gossip
76. Which statement best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 22–24 (“Why, my dear … England;”)
(B) Lines 42–44 (“But it is … one of them,”)
(C) Lines 90–92 (“But I hope … neighbourhood.”)
(D) Lines 105–106 (“its solace … news.”)
77. How many daughters do the Bennets have?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
78. What does Mr. Bennet mean when he says, “Depend … them all” (lines 95–96)?
(A) He will visit the new neighbors only when there are more of them to visit.
(B) He is committing to a course of action for a scenario which will not likely happen.
(C) He is using gentle humor to assuage his wife’s concerns.
(D) He wants his daughters to have a good selection of men to choose from.
79. In line 41, “design” most nearly means
(A) purpose
(B) layout
(C) schematic
(D) blueprint
80. In line 69, “a few lines” most nearly means
(A) drawings
(B) poetry
(C) message
(D) boundaries
Passage I
Questions 81–90 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from Anna Karenina, by Leo Tolstoy (public domain).
81. What is meant by the words “but all … conscious of it” (lines 10–12)?
(A) Stepan did not want the family to know.
(B) The family members were disappointed.
(C) The family members were in pain.
(D) Stepan was in pain.
82. The author probably thinks happy families are
(A) interesting
(B) boring
(C) worth writing about
(D) commonplace
83. The family is probably
(A) wealthy and happy
(B) wealthy but not happy
(C) not wealthy but happy
(D) neither wealthy nor happy
84. Which phrase best supports the answer to the happiness part of the preceding question?
(A) Lines 1–2 (“Happy … own way.”)
(B) Lines 14–16 (“the stray … the family”)
(C) Lines 50–53 (“And noticing … the sofa,”)
(D) Lines 70–71 (“all my … blame.”)
85. Stepan probably most regrets
(A) his indiscretions
(B) the family finding out
(C) his pain from being caught
(D) hurting his wife
86. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) introduce Stepan as a vulnerable, misunderstood figure
(B) introduce Stepan as a victim of uncontrollable circumstances
(C) introduce Stepan as an uncaring, destructive force
(D) introduce Stepan as a controlling, authoritative figure
87. The purpose of the last paragraph is to show that
(A) Stepan hopes to reconcile with his wife
(B) Stepan was driven to have the affair
(C) Stepan can’t handle a quarrel
(D) Stepan can’t take responsibility for his actions
88. Which phrase best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 46–47 (“Stepan … a smile.”)
(B) Lines 59–62 (“And thereupon … brows.”)
(C) Lines 66–67 (“all the hopelessness … fault.”)
(D) Lines 70–71 (“though … situation,”)
89. What is the purpose of the phrase “he stretched … his bedroom” (lines 57–59)?
(A) It shows how significantly the housing staff’s discomfort affects Stepan.
(B) It shows how little of an effect the separation has had on Stepan.
(C) It shows that Stepan did not really know where he was.
(D) It shows that the bathrobe should have been in its place near the couch.
90. Stepan seems most concerned about
(A) his wife
(B) himself
(C) his marriage
(D) his household
Passage J
Questions 91–100 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passages.
Passage 1 is an excerpt from Networks of Outrage and Hope: Social Movements in the Internet Age, by Manuel Castells (Wiley-Blackwell). Passage 2 is an excerpt from Tap, Click, Read: Growing Readers in a World of Screens, by Lisa Guernsey and Michael H. Levine (Wiley-Blackwell).
Passage 1
Passage 2
91. Taken together, the passages would suggest that
(A) more revolutions are likely to come from the young and increasingly online population
(B) as more people become connected, they are likely to make more rational decisions
(C) at some point, the percentage of connected people is likely to go down
(D) as the world becomes more and more connected, arrests for dissenting artists and musicians are likely to increase
92. Which phrase best supports the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 2–5 (“it is significant … Arab world.”)
(B) Lines 22–25 (“The communicative … gave hope.”)
(C) Lines 48–52 (“Open up … across the globe,”)
(D) Lines 78–79 (“Yet for those … app for that.”)
93. What is the author’s purpose in mentioning “the old Chinese proverb, ‘We live in interesting times’” (lines 44–45)?
(A) To place attention on how interesting the modern devices can be
(B) To show the foresight held by the ancient Chinese
(C) To remind the reader that things have always been changing
(D) To reflect on how things today are so different
94. As used in line 18, “actors” most nearly means
(A) beneficiaries
(B) supporters
(C) instigators
(D) portrayers
95. Unlike Passage 1, Passage 2 makes use of
(A) analogy
(B) imagery
(C) pedagogy
(D) theology
96. The primary message of Passage 2 is that
(A) we continue increasing reliance on our mobile devices, and there is no going back
(B) our times continue to become more interesting, and there is no going back
(C) the number of apps continues to increase, and there is no going back
(D) mobile device usage continues to increase, and there is no going back
97. Which statement best reflects the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 44–45 (“We live … times.”)
(B) Lines 59–60 (“How on … devices?”)
(C) Lines 74–75 (“And the … dizzying.”)
(D) Lines 78–79 (“Yet for those … app for that.”)
98. What was the main significance of Tunisia in the Arab Spring?
(A) Sfax was a hotspot of dissent and unrest.
(B) The rapper El Général made use of social networks to denounce the dictatorship.
(C) The revolt occurred sooner because its citizens were more connected than in other Arab countries.
(D) It citizens were looking for “complete transition.”
99. As used in line 49, “cornucopia” most nearly means
(A) a horn filled with good food
(B) a Thanksgiving icon
(C) a plethora
(D) a mythical source of nutrition
100. Which best describes the overall relationship between Passage 2 and Passage 1?
(A) Passage 2 describes an overall trend, while Passage 1 describes a specific aspect of it.
(B) Passage 2 describes a platform of change, while Passage 1 describes events likely to occur.
(C) Passage 2 explains a phenomenon, while Passage 1 describes a mitigating factor.
(D) Passage 2 begins a story, while Passage 1 ends it.
Passage K
Questions 101–110 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
Passage 1 is an excerpt from The Wiley-Blackwell Companion to Sociology, edited by George Ritzer (Wiley-Blackwell). Passage 2 is an excerpt from The Posthuman, by Rosi Braidotti (Wiley-Blackwell).
Passage 1
Passage 2
101. What does Ritzer argue is the difference between production and consumption?
(A) Production is creating, and consuming is using.
(B) Production is recent, and consumption is historical.
(C) Production is permanent, and consumption is temporary.
(D) They are opposite sides of the same spectrum.
102. Which sentence best reflects the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 1–4 (“Ritzer (2009) … both.”)
(B) Lines 16–18 (“Prosumption … Web 2.0.”)
(C) Lines 39–43 (“Of course … continuum).”)
(D) Lines 45–49 (“Among others … global age.”)
103. Unlike Web 1.0, Web 2.0 is specifically
(A) newer and therefore better
(B) fueled by content produced by the user
(C) an asset to the neo-liberal market forces
(D) a reflection of the distinction between the producer and the consumer
104. What would the author of Passage 2 attribute to a phenomenon described in Passage 1?
(A) The prosumptive shift to Web 2.0 paves the way for life-mining.
(B) The continuum of production and consumption set the stage for bio-political governmentality.
(C) The assembly-line worker who produces and consumes represents a whole section of the population in the world risk society.
(D) The sociological theorist who ignores production or consumption cannot fathom life as surplus.
105. Which sentence best reflects the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 4–5 (“That is … prosumption.”)
(B) Lines 5–12 (“The assembly-line … meal).”)
(C) Lines 39–43 (“Of course … continuum).”)
(D) Lines 63–67 (“Data banks … level.”)
106. The emergence of Web 2.0 is an example of
(A) production
(B) consumption
(C) prosumption
(D) neo-liberalism
107. As used in line 71, “Life-mining” most nearly means
(A) an extent of data-mining
(B) the use of Facebook
(C) Cooper’s “Life as surplus”
(D) Foucault’s bio-political governmentality
108. What is the primary purpose of Passage 1?
(A) To explain the success of Web 2.0 sites such as Facebook
(B) To describe the shift to prosumption and the accompanying emergence of Web 2.0
(C) To portray the perspective of sociological theorists, such as Harvey, on neoliberalism
(D) To depict the observation of sociological theorists, such as Hardt and Negri, on the transformation of the capitalist and proletariat into Empire and Multitude
109. What is the primary purpose of Passage 2?
(A) To describe a marketing phenomenon
(B) To offer a global warning
(C) To explain profiling practices
(D) To show predictability
110. Which sentence best reflects the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 50–52 (“What the … itself.”)
(B) Lines 55–59 (“It introduces … governmentality.”)
(C) Lines 63–67 (“Data banks … level.”)
(D) Lines 70–73 (“This kind … criteria.”)
Passage L
Questions 111–120 are based on the following information. Read the passage and answer each question based on information stated or implied in the passage.
The following passage is an excerpt from The Galápagos: A Natural Laboratory for the Earth Sciences, edited by Karen S. Harpp, Eric Mittelstaedt, Noémi d’Ozouville, and David W. Graham (The American Geophysical Union and Wiley-Blackwell).
Evidence from Volcanic History and Geomorphology
© John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
FIGURE 5-2: Cumulative number of eruptions reported from the western Galápagos. Human inhabitation and visitation increased dramatically in the mid-20th century. The eruption rate since 1950 has been approximately one eruption every two years.
111. According to the passage, where and when did one of the largest caldera collapses in historical times take place?
(A) Cerro Azul, 2006
(B) Isabela, 1950
(C) Fernandina, 1968
(D) Ecuador, 1991
112. What percent of the volume of that large caldera collapse was the volume of erupted material accompanying this event?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) More than 1%
(C) Less than 75%
(D) More than 75%
113. Which of the following is not a likely cause of the low percentage of erupted material in the collapse referenced in the preceding question?
(A) A major submarine eruption went undetected.
(B) A subaerial eruption occurred.
(C) A large intrusion moved a significant volume of magma from the sub-caldera magma reservoir.
(D) The crust was loaded with dense, intrusive rocks.
114. According to Figure 5.2, the number of volcanic eruptions in 2050 will probably be
(A) close to 80
(B) close to 60
(C) close to 40
(D) close to 20
115. What is a drawback of the data collected in Figure 5.2?
(A) Certain islands may not have been included each year.
(B) Earthquakes may have been counted as eruptions.
(C) The definition of an eruption has changed.
(D) Past eruptions may not have been reported.
116. Which phrase provides the best support for the answer to the preceding question?
(A) Lines 16–17 (“prior … underreported.”)
(B) Lines 29–30 (“The western … morphologies,”)
(C) Lines 57–58 (“The submarine … parts:”)
(D) Lines 74–76 (“Wolf, Cerro Azul … refilling,”)
117. According to the passage, what is likely the primary cause of the Galápagos calderas?
(A) Singular collapse events
(B) Repeated small co-eruption events
(C) Individual voluminous eruptions
(D) The magma supply rate
118. The first eruption was observed and recorded in the Galápagos in
(A) 1797
(B) 1831
(C) 1950
(D) 1968
119.
